NCLEX RN Practice Test 3 0% 0 NCLEX NCLEX RN Practice Test 3 This NCLEX Practice Set contains 100 Questions. Attempt them all and check your knowledge 1 / 100 A client with anorexia nervosa tells the nurse, “When I look in the mirror, I hate what I see. I look so fat and ugly.†Which strategy should the nurse use to deal with the client’s distorted perceptions and feelings? Provide objective data and feedback regarding the client’s weight and attractiveness. Avoid discussing the client’s perceptions and feelings. Focus discussions on food and weight. Avoid discussing unrealistic cultural standards regarding weight. By focusing on reality, this strategy may help the client develop a more realistic body image and gain self-esteem. Option A is inappropriate because discussing the client’s perceptions and feeling wouldn’t help her to identify, accept, and work through them. Focusing discussions on food and weight would give the client attention for not eating, making option B incorrect. Option C is inappropriate because recognizing unrealistic cultural standards wouldn’t help the client establish more realistic weight goals. 2 / 100 John has a fever of 39.5 degrees 2 days ago, But yesterday, he has a normal temperature of 36.5 degrees. Today, his temperature surges to 40 degrees. What type of fever is John having? Constant Relapsing Intermittent Remittent Relapsing 3 / 100 Situation : You are actively practicing nurse who has just finished your graduate studies. You learned the value of research and would like to utilize the knowledge and skills gained in the application of research to the nursing service. The following questions apply to research. Q. Which of the following studies is based on the qualitative research? A study measuring differences in blood pressure before, during and after procedure A study measuring nutrition and weight loss/gain in clients with cancer A study examining client’s reaction to stress after open heart surgery A study examining oxygen levels after endotracheal suctioning A study examining client’s reaction to stress after open heart surgery 4 / 100 Which of the following should the nurse do first after noting that a child with Hirschsprung disease has a fever and watery explosive diarrhea? Nothing, this is characteristic of Hirschsprung disease Notify the physician immediately Monitor child ever 30 minutes Administer antidiarrheal medications For the child with Hirschsprung disease, fever and explosive diarrhea indicate enterocolitis, a life-threatening situation. Therefore, the physician should be notified immediately. Generally, because of the intestinal obstruction and inadequate propulsive intestinal movement, antidiarrheals are not used to treat Hirschsprung disease. The child is acutely ill and requires intervention, with monitoring more frequently than every 30 minutes. Hirschsprung disease typically presents with chronic constipation. 5 / 100 Situation : – Please continue responding as a professional nurse in varied health situations through the following questions. Q. Which of the following medications would the nurse expect the physician to order for recurrent convulsive seizures of a 10-year old child brought to your clinic? Diazepam Butorphanol Nifedipine Phenobarbital Phenobarbital 6 / 100 Dyspnea, cough, expectoration, weakness, and edema are classic signs and symptoms of which of the following conditions? Hypertension Obliterative Restrictive Pericarditis These are the classic symptoms of heart failure. Pericarditis is exhibited by a feeling of fullness in the chest and auscultation of a pericardial friction rub. Hypertension is usually exhibited by headaches, visual disturbances and a flushed face. Myocardial infarction causes heart failure but isn’t related to these symptoms. 7 / 100 The patient is prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl) for adjunct treatment for a duodenal ulcer. When teaching about this medication the nurse would include: While taking this medication alcoholic beverages and products containing alcohol should be avoided. While taking this medication you do not have to be concerned about being in the sun. This medication should be taken only until you begin to feel better. This medication should be taken on an empty stomach to increase absorption. Alcohol will cause extreme nausea if consumed with Flagyl. Answer A is incorrect because the full course of treatment should be taken. The medication should be taken with a full 8 oz. of water with meals and the client should avoid direct sunlight because he will most likely be photosensitive; therefore answers A B and C are incorrect. 8 / 100 Situation :– Fe is experiencing left sharp pain and occasional hematuria. She was advised to undergo IVP by her physician. Q. Fe was so anxious about the procedure and particularly expressed her low pain threshold. Nursing health instruction will include: assure the client that the procedure painless assure the client that contrast medium will be given orally assure the client that x-ray procedure like IVP is only done by experts assure the client that the pain is associated with the warm sensation during the administration of the Hypaque by IV Right Answer is: assure the client that the pain is associated with the warm sensation during the administration of the Hypaque by IV 9 / 100 The patient should be fasts (NPO) before the surgery for: 24 hours. 6 to 8 hours. 12 hours. 16 hours. 6 to 8 hours. 10 / 100 Situation: In your professional nursing role, it is essential to establish a meaningful nurse-patient relationship. Q. The client said “I am troubled that my Son is starting to use drugs.†The nurse replied, “It’s troubling and painful for you, I feel sorry about this.†The nurse’s reply is an example of: Self awareness Empathy Telepathy Sympathy Sympathy 11 / 100 How long will nurse John obtain an accurate reading of temperature via oral route? 15 minutes 8 minutes 1 minute 3 minutes 3 minutes 12 / 100 The correct method for determining the vastus lateralis site for I.M. injection is to: Locate the upper aspect of the upper outer quadrant of the buttock about 5 to 8 cm below the iliac crest Palpate a 1†circular area anterior to the umbilicus Divide the area between the greater femoral trochanter and the lateral femoral condyle into thirds, and select the middle third on the anterior of the thigh Palpate the lower edge of the acromion process and the midpoint lateral aspect of the arm The vastus lateralis, a long, thick muscle that extends the full length of the thigh, is viewed by many clinicians as the site of choice for I.M. injections because it has relatively few major nerves and blood vessels. The middle third of the muscle is recommended as the injection site. The patient can be in a supine or sitting position for an injection into this site. 13 / 100 Situation :– You are now working as a staff nurse in a general hospital. You have to be prepared to handle situations with ethico-legal and moral implications. Q. You are on duty in the medical ward. The mother of your patient who is also a nurse came running to the nurse station and informed you that Fiolo went into cardiopulmonary arrest. Which among the following will you do first? Call for the Code Go to see Fiolo and assess for airway patency and breathing problems Start basic life support measures Bring the crush cart to the room Right Answer is: Go to see Fiolo and assess for airway patency and breathing problems 14 / 100 A client is being treated for alcoholism. After a family meeting, the client’s spouse asks the nurse about ways to help the family deal with the effects of alcoholism. The nurse should suggest that the family join which organization? Alcoholics Anonymous Al-Anon Emotions Anonymous Make Today Count Al-Anon is an organization that assists family members to share common experiences and increase their understanding of alcoholism. Make Today Count is a support group for people with life-threatening or chronic illnesses. Emotions Anonymous is a support group for people experiencing depression, anxiety, or similar conditions. Alcoholics Anonymous is an organization that helps alcoholics recover by using a twelve-step program. 15 / 100 Prior to initiating therapy with unfractionated heparin for a patient hospitalized with a deep vein thrombosis, this treatment requires: Fluid restrictions Bed rest Aspirin therapy A high protein diet Aspirin therapy 16 / 100 Situation :- After an abdominal surgery, the circulating and scrub nurses have critical responsibility about sponge and Instrument count. Q. When is the first sponge/instrument count reported? Before the fascia is sutured Before dosing the skin Before closing the subcutaneous layer Before peritoneum is closed Right Answer is: Before peritoneum is closed 17 / 100 Situation : Rosanna 20 y/0 unmarried patient believes that the toilet for the female patient in contaminated with AIDS virus and refuses to use it unless she flushes it three times and wipes the toilet seat the same number of times with antiseptic solution. Q. The goal for treatment for Rosana must be directed toward helping her to: Accept the environment unconditionally Walk freely about her past experience Develop trusting relationship with other Gain insight that her behaviour is due to feeling of anxiety Gain insight that her behaviour is due to feeling of anxiety 18 / 100 At what APGAR score at 5 minutes after birth should resuscitation be initiated? 44748 44843 44621 44780 Answer: (A) 1-3 An APGAR of 1-3 is a sign of fetal distress which requires resuscitation. The baby is alright if the score is 8-10. 19 / 100 Glimepiride is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. The nurse instructs the client that which food items are most acceptable to consume while taking this medication? Select all that apply. 1. Alcohol 2. Red meats 3. Whole-grain cereals 4. Low-calorie desserts 5. Carbonated beverages 2, 4, 5 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4 2, 3,5 When alcohol is combined with glimepiride, a disulfiram-like reaction may occur. This syndrome includes flushing, palpitations, and nausea. Alcohol can also potentiate the hypoglycemic effects of the medication. Clients need to be instructed to avoid alcohol consumption while taking this medication. Low-calorie desserts should also be avoided. Even though the calorie content may be low, carbohydrate content is most likely high and can affect the blood glucose. The items in options 2, 3, and 5 are acceptable to consume. 20 / 100 The nurse is working in the trauma unit of the emergency room when a 24-year-old female is admitted after an MVA. The client is bleeding profusely and a blood transfusion is ordered. Which would the nurse be prepared to administer without a type and crossmatch? AB negative O positive AB positive O negative O negative blood type is universal blood type for females of childbearing age. Answers A B and C are not to be given to females of childbearing age if this is not their blood type. A blood type of O positive is given to males and postmenopausal women in emergencies. 21 / 100 Among the following diseases, which is airborne? Viral conjunctivitis Measles Acute poliomyelitis Diphtheria Viral conjunctivitis is transmitted by direct or indirect contact with discharges from infected eyes. Acute poliomyelitis is spread through the fecal-oral route and contact with throat secretions, whereas diphtheria is through direct and indirect contact with respiratory secretions. 22 / 100 Which of the following action is an accurate tracheal suctioning technique? 25 seconds of continuous suction during catheter insertion. 15 seconds of intermittent suction during catheter withdrawal. 10 seconds of intermittent suction during catheter withdrawal. 20 seconds of continuous suction during catheter insertion. Suctioning is only done for 10 seconds, intermittently, as the catheter is being withdrawn. 23 / 100 An 87 year old widow was hospitalized for treatment of chronic renal disease. She lives with her daughter and son-in- law and their family, who are very supportive. She is now ready for discharge. The doctor has ordered high carbohydrates, low-protein, low sodium diet for her and the family has asked for assistance in planning low-sodium diet meals. Which of the following choices best reflects the pre-discharge information the nurse should provide for the client’s family regarding low-sodium diet? Avoid canned and processed foods, do not use salt replacements substitute herbs and replaces for salt in cooking and when seasoning foods, call a dietitian for help. Limit milk and dairy products, cook separate meals that are low in sodium and encourage increased fluid intake Avoid eating in a restaurant, soak vegetables well before cooking to remove sodium, omit all canned foods, and remove salt shakes from table. Use potassium salts in place of table salt when cooking and seasoning foods, read the labels on packaged foods to determine sodium content, and avoid snacks food Right Answer is: Avoid canned and processed foods, do not use salt replacements substitute herbs and replaces for salt in cooking and when seasoning foods, call a dietitian for help. 24 / 100 A nurse is providing care to a patient with a new skin graft on the leg. The patient is upset and the nurse notes copious red drainage oozing around the dressing the nurse should immediately: Ask if the patient is having any pain Lift the dressing to assess the area Apply firm pressure for 10 to 15 minutes Assess the apical pulse Apply firm pressure for 10 to 15 minutes 25 / 100 The spouse of a client admitted to the mental health unit for alcohol withdrawal says to the nurse, “I should get out of this bad situation.†Which is the most helpful response by the nurse? “I agree with you. You should get out of this situation.†“What do you find difficult about this situation?†“This is not the best time to make that decision.†“Why don’t you tell your spouse about this?†The most helpful response is one that encourages the client to solve problems. Giving advice implies that the nurse knows what is best and can foster dependency. The nurse should not agree with the client, and the nurse should not request that the client provide explanations. 26 / 100 A client taking Coumadin is to be educated on his diet. As a nurse, which of the following food should you instruct the client to avoid? Butter, Egg yolk, breakfast cereals Banana, Yeast, Wheat germ, Chicken Spinach, Green leafy vegetables, Cabbage, Liver Salmon, Sardines, Tuna Certain foods and beverages can make it so warfarin doesn’t effectively prevent blood clots. In order to maintain stable PT/INR levels one should not eat more than 1 serving of a high vitamin K food, and no more than 3 servings of a food with moderate amounts of vitamin K. What is important is that your intake of vitamin K stays consistent. The nurse must instruct the client to avoid eating or drinking large amounts of Kale, Spinach, Brussels sprouts, Parsley, Collard greens, Mustard greens, Chard, and Green tea. 27 / 100 Which interventions are appropriate for the care of an infant? Select all that apply. 1. Provide swaddling. 2. Talk in a loud voice. 3. Provide the infant with a bottle of juice at nap time. 4. Hang mobiles with black and white contrast designs. 5. Caress the infant while bathing or during diaper changes. 6. Allow the infant to cry for at least 10 minutes before responding. 1, 2, 3, 5 2, 3, 4 2, 4, 5 1, 4, 5 Holding, caressing, and swaddling provide warmth and tactile stimulation for the infant. To provide auditory stimulation, the nurse should talk to the infant in a soft voice and should instruct the mother to do so also. Additional interventions include playing a music box, radio, or television, or having a ticking clock or metronome nearby. Hanging a bright shiny object in midline within 20 to 25 cm of the infant’s face and hanging mobiles with contrasting colors, such as black and white, provide visual stimulation. Crying is an infant’s way of communicating; therefore, the nurse would respond to the infant’s crying. The mother is taught to do so also. An infant or child should never be allowed to fall asleep with a bottle containing milk, juice, soda pop, sweetened water, or another sweet liquid because of the risk of nursing (bottle-mouth) caries. 28 / 100 Situation : As a nurse you are expected to participate in initiating or participating in the conduct of research students to improve nursing practice. You to be updated on the latest trends and issues affected the profession and the best practices arrived at by the profession. Q. You are interested to study the effects of medication and relaxation on the pain experienced by the cancer patients. What type of variable is pain? Correlational Demographic Dependent Independent Dependent 29 / 100 Situation : Mr Gil age 86 years, has been diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. Q. What is the nurse’s primary objective for Mr. Gil when he is experiencing dementia and delirium? Participation with the environment Diminished psychological faculties Face to face contact with the other clients Interaction with the environment Right Answer is: Interaction with the environment 30 / 100 Situation :– As a nurse in the Oncology Unit, you have to be prepared to provide efficient and effective care to your patients. Q. What is the purpose of wearing a film badge while caring for the patient who is radioactive? Measure the amount of exposure to radiation Prevent radiation-induced sterility Protect the nurse from radiation effects Identify the nurse who is assigned to care for such a patient Right Answer is: Protect the nurse from radiation effects 31 / 100 Which paranasal sinus is found over the eyebrow? Ehtmoid Maxillary Frontal Sphenoid The frontal sinuses are found superior to the eyes and eyebrows in the frontal bone, which forms the hard part of the forehead. 32 / 100 Situation : – Nurse Michelle works with a Family Nursing Team in Calbayog Province specifically handling a UNICEF project for children. The following conditions pertain, to CARE OP THE FAMILIES PRESCHOOLERS. As a nurse. You reviewed infant safety procedures with Bryan’s mother. What are two of the most common types of accidents among infants? Aspiration and falls Poisoning and burns Falls and auto accidents Drowning and homicide Aspiration and falls 33 / 100 A male client has the following arterial blood gas values: pH 7.30; Pao2 89 mmHg; Paco2 50 mmHg; and HCO3 26 mEq/L. Based on these values, Nurse Patricia should expect which condition? Respiratory acidosis Metabolic alkalosis Metabolic acidosis Respiratory alkalosis The client has a below-normal (acidic) blood pH value and an above-normal partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (Paco2) value, indicating respiratory acidosis. In respiratory alkalosis, the pH value is above normal and in the Paco2 value is below normal. In metabolic acidosis, the pH and bicarbonate (Hco3) values are below normal. In metabolic alkalosis, the pH and Hco3 values are above normal. 34 / 100 The nurse is assessing a patient with a history of a seizure disorder. While checking the patient’s vital signs, the patient develops rhythmic, jerking movements of the arms and legs. The nurse should IMMEDIATELY place the patient in which of the following positions? Supine Prone Semi-fowler’s Lateral Lateral 35 / 100 The physician orders dextrose 5% in water, 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours. The I.V. tubing delivers 15 drops/ml. The nurse should run the I.V. infusion at a rate of: 125 drops/minute 15 drops/minute 32 drops/minute. 21 drops/minute. 32 drops/minute. 36 / 100 A patient has exacerbation of congestive heart failure, with one of the nursing diagnosis being excess fluid (Lasix). The nurse closely monitors fluid intake and output and administers furosemide (Lasix). Which of the following indicates the efficacy of the nursing intervention? The patient has shortness of breath The patient has jugular vein distention The patient has decreased in weight The patient has leg edema The patient has decreased in weight 37 / 100 A nurse is caring a patient who had a left mastectomy with lymph node removal seven days ago. The patient asks about exercises to regain function of the left arm. Which of the following activities would be MOST appropriate? Using five pound weights Walking fingers up the wall Knitting with a large needle Rhythmic clapping Walking fingers up the wall 38 / 100 A 21 year-old male has been seen in the clinic for a thickening in his right testicle. The physician ordered a human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) level. The nurse’s explanation to the client should include the fact that: The test was ordered because clients who have testicular cancer has elevated levels of HCG. The test will evaluate prostatic function. The test was ordered to evaluate the testosterone level. The test was ordered to identify the site of a possible infection. HCG is one of the tumor markers for testicular cancer. The HCG level won’t identify the site of an infection or evaluate prostatic function or testosterone level. 39 / 100 To improve compliance to treatment, what innovation is being implemented in DOTS? Having the patient come to the health center every month to get his medications Having a target list to check on whether the patient has collected his monthly supply of drugs Having the health worker or a responsible family member monitor drug intake Having the health worker follow up the client at home Directly Observed Treatment Short Course is so-called because a treatment partner, preferably a health worker accessible to the client, monitors the client’s compliance to the treatment. 40 / 100 The pregnant woman visits the clinic for check –up. Which assessment findings will help the nurse determine that the client is in 8-week gestation? Positive radioimmunoassay test (RIA test). Fundal height. Leopold maneuvers. Auscultation of fetal heart tones. Serum radioimmunoassay (RIA. is accurate within 7days of conception. This test is specific for HCG, and accuracy is not compromised by confusion with LH. 41 / 100 What event occurring in the second trimester helps the expectant mother to accept the pregnancy? Ballotment Quickening Pseudocyesis Lightening Quickening is the first fetal movement felt by the mother makes the woman realize that she is truly pregnant. In early pregnancy, the fetus is moving but too weak to be felt by the mother. In the 18th-20th week of gestation, the fetal movements become stronger thus the mother already feels the movements. 42 / 100 Situation : Rene is a 3 y/o boy brought to the health center for fever and cough. You noted grayish pinpoint dots located at the buccal mucosa. A maculopapular rash was noted on his face. Q. The nurse knows that the most common complication of Measles is: Otitis Media Bronchiectasis neumonia and laryngotracheitis Encephalitis Right Answer is: neumonia and laryngotracheitis 43 / 100 Which of the following is the ileostomy for an lowar Left upper Left lowar right upper right lowar right 44 / 100 A patient has an elevated prothrombin (PT) time. Which medication should the Nurse consider as a possible cause of the elevated PT Time? Vitamin K Birth control pills Rifampin Phenytoin (Dilantin) Birth control pills 45 / 100 A client in labor admits to using alcohol throughout the pregnancy. The most recent use was the day before. Based on the clients history the nurse should give priority to assessing the newborn for: Jitteriness Respiratory depression Wide-set eyes Low-set ears Jitteriness and irritability are signs of alcohol withdrawal in the newborn. Answer A is incorrect because it would be associated with use more recent than one day ago. Answers B and D are characteristics of a newborn with fetal alcohol syndrome but they are not a priority at this time; therefore they are incorrect. 46 / 100 Situation : Melamine contamination in milk has brought world wide crisis both in the milk production sector as well as the health and economy. Being aware of the current events is one quality that a nurse should possess to prove that nursing is a dynamic profession that will adapt depending on the patient’s needs. Q. Which government agency is responsible for testing the melamine content of foods and food products? DOH NBI BFAD MMDA Right Answer is: BFAD 47 / 100 The nurse prepares to palpate a client’s maxillary sinus. For this procedure, where should the nurse place the hands? On the bridge of the nose over the temporal area below the cheekbones below the eyebrows Right Answer is: below the cheekbones 48 / 100 Barangay Pinoy had an outbreak of German measles. To prevent congenital rubella, what is the BEST advice that you can give to women in the first trimester of pregnancy in the Barangay Pinoy? Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin. Advise them on the signs of German measles. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and movie houses. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may be given. Rubella vaccine is made up of attenuated German measles viruses. This is contraindicated in pregnancy. Immune globulin, a specific prophylactic against German measles, may be given to pregnant women. 49 / 100 SITUATION : Wide knowledge about the human ear, it’s parts and it’s functions will help a nurse assess and analyze changes in the adult client’s health. Q. Nurse Oca will do a caloric testing to a client who sustained a blunt injury in the head. He instilled a cold water in the client’s right ear and he noticed that nystagmus occurred towards the left ear. What does this finding indicates? Indicating a Cranial Nerve VIII Dysfunction This is Grossly abnormal and should be reported to the neurosurgeon This indicates an intact and working vestibular branch of CN VIII The test should be repeated again because the result is vague Rotary nystagmus towards the ear [ if warm ] or away from it [ if cool ] is a normal response. It indicates that the CN VIII Vestibular branch is still intact. 50 / 100 A female victim of a sexual assault is being seen in the crisis center. The client states that she still feels “as though the rape just happened yesterday,†even though it has been a few months since the incident. Which is the most appropriate nursing response? “What do you think that you can do to alleviate some of your fears about being raped again?†“You need to try to be realistic. The rape did not just occur.†“Tell me more about the incident that causes you to feel like the rape just occurred.†“It will take some time to get over these feelings about your rape.†The correct option allows the client to express her ideas and feelings more fully and portrays a nonhurried, nonjudgmental, supportive attitude on the part of the nurse. Clients need to be reassured that their feelings are normal and that they may express their concerns freely in a safe, caring environment. Option 1 immediately blocks communication. Option 2 places the client’s feelings on hold. Option 4 places the problem solving totally on the client. 51 / 100 The day care nurse is observing a 2-year-old child and suspects that the child may have strabismus. Which observation made by the nurse indicates the presence of this condition? The child consistently turns the head to hear. The child consistently tilts the head to see. The child has difficulty hearing. The child does not respond when spoken to. Strabismus is a condition in which the eyes are not aligned because of lack of coordination of the extraocular muscles. The nurse may suspect strabismus in a child when the child complains of frequent headaches, squints, or tilts the head to see. Other manifestations include crossed eyes, closing one eye to see, diplopia, photophobia, loss of binocular vision, or impairment of depth perception. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not indicative of this condition. 52 / 100 A healthy 26-year-old patient is at 39-weeks-gestation. The patient is not considered high risk at the time of admission to the labor and delivery unit. Which of the following pending laboratory test results should receive PRIORITY? White blood cell count Blood type Hematocrit Red blood cell count Blood type 53 / 100 Pain control is an important nursing goal for the client with pancreatitis. Which of the following medications would the nurse plan to administer in this situation? Cimetidine (Tagamet) Morphine sulfate Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) Codeine sulfate Right Answer is: Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) 54 / 100 Gina is using Oresol in the management of diarrhea of her 3-year old child. She asked you what to do if her child vomits. As a nurse you will tell her to: Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly. Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further assessment. Bring the child to the health center for assessment by the physician. Bring the child to the health center for intravenous fluid therapy. If the child vomits persistently, that is, he vomits everything that he takes in, he has to be referred urgently to a hospital. Otherwise, vomiting is managed by letting the child rest for 10 minutes and then continuing with Oresol administration. Teach the mother to give Oresol more slowly. 55 / 100 The nurse calls the heath care provider (HCP) regarding a new medication prescription because the dosage prescribed is higher than the recommended dosage. The nurse is unable to locate the HCP, and the medication is due to be administered. Which action should the nurse take? Administer the dose prescribed. Contact the nursing supervisor. Hold the medication until the HCP can be contacted. Administer the recommended dose until the HCP can be located. If the HCP writes a prescription that requires clarification, the nurse’s responsibility is to contact the HCP. If there is no resolution regarding the prescription because the HCP cannot be located or because the prescription remains as it was written after talking with the HCP, the nurse should contact the nurse manager or nursing supervisor for further clarification as to what the next step should be. Under no circumstances should the nurse proceed to carry out the prescription until obtaining clarification. 56 / 100 The minimum birth weight for full term babies to be considered normal is: 2,500gms 1,500gms 2,000gms 3,000gms Answer: (C) 2,500gms According to the WHO standard, the minimum normal birth weight of a full term baby is 2,500 gms or 2.5 Kg. 57 / 100 Which of the following statement is TRUE about pulse? Digitalis has a positive chronotropic effect Males have higher pulse rate than females after puberty Young person have higher pulse than older persons In lying position, Pulse rate is higher Young person have higher pulse than older persons 58 / 100 SITUATION: John Lloyd, a 27 basketball player sustained inhalation burn that required him to have tracheostomy due to massive upper airway edema. Q. If a Wall unit is used, What should be the suctioning pressure required by John Lloyd? 100-120 mmHg 50-95 mmHg 95-110 mmHg 155-175 mmHg A is used in pediatric clients. B is for children and C is for adults. 155-175 mmHg is too much for a wall suction unit and is not recommended. 59 / 100 Which of the following prenatal laboratory test values would the nurse consider as significant? White blood cells 8,000/mm3 Rubella titer less than 1:8 One hour glucose challenge test 110 g/dL Hematocrit 33.5% A rubella titer should be 1:8 or greater. Thurs, a finding of a titer less than 1:8 is significant, indicating that the client may not possess immunity to rubella. A hematocrit of 33.5% a white blood cell count of 8,000/mm3, and a 1 hour glucose challenge test of 110 g/dl are with normal parameters. 60 / 100 Joy who has just experienced her second spontaneous abortion expresses anger towards her physician, the hospital and the “rotten nursing careâ€. When assessing the situation, the nurse recognizes that the client may be using the coping mechanism of: Projection Reaction formation Displacement Denial The client’s anger over the abortion is shifted to the staff and the hospital because she is unable to deal with the abortion at this time. 61 / 100 Nurse Patricia is aware that the average length of time from human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection to the development of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? Less than 5 years 10 years 5 to 7 years More than 10 years Epidemiologic studies show the average time from initial contact with HIV to the development of AIDS is 10 years. 62 / 100 A healthy 26-year-old patient is at 39-weeks-gestation. The patient is not considered high risk at the time of admission to the labor and delivery unit.Which of the following pending laboratory test results should receive PRIORITY? Red blood cell count Blood type White blood cell count Hematocrit Blood type 63 / 100 Which of the following actions is the first priority care for a client exhibiting signs and symptoms of coronary artery disease? Decrease anxiety Administer sublingual nitroglycerin Educate the client about his symptoms Enhance myocardial oxygenation Enhancing myocardial oxygenation is always the first priority when a client exhibits signs and symptoms of cardiac compromise. Without adequate oxygen, the myocardium suffers damage. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to treat acute angina, but its administration isn’t the first priority. Although educating the client and decreasing anxiety are important in care delivery, nether are priorities when a client is compromised. 64 / 100 A client with chronic kidney disease returns to the nursing unit following a hemodialysis treatment. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client’s temperature is 38.5 °C (101.2 °F). Which nursing action is most appropriate? Monitor the site of the shunt for infection. Continue to monitor vital signs. Notify the health care provider. Encourage fluid intake. Atemperatureof101.2°F(38.5°C)issignificantly elevated and may indicate infection. The nurse should notify the health care provider (HCP). Dialysis clients cannot have fluid intake encouraged. Vital signs and the shunt site should be monitored, but the HCP should be notified first. 65 / 100 A patient who is receiving total parenteral nutrition has an elevated blood glucose eve! and is to be administered intravenous insulin. Which of the following types of insulin should a nurse has available? Isophane insulin (NPH) Semi-Lente Insulin (Semiterd) Regular insulin (Humulin R) Insulin zinc suspension (Lente) Right Answer is: Regular insulin (Humulin R) 66 / 100 Marco who was diagnosed with brain tumor was scheduled for craniotomy. In preventing the development of cerebral edema after surgery, the nurse should expect the use of: Anticonvulsants Antihypertensive Steroids Diuretics Glucocorticoids (steroids) are used for their anti-inflammatory action, which decreases the development of edema. 67 / 100 A patient is scheduled for a bowel resection. The preoperative plan of care includes putting on antiembolism stockings prior to the transferring the patient to the operating room. What these stockings will do‘? Encourage sustained maximum inspiration Minimize joint stillness Support intestinal peristalsis Promote venous return Promote venous return 68 / 100 While the nurse aide tries to dress a resident who is confused, the resident keeps trying to grab a hairbrush. The nurse aide should give the resident the hairbrush to hold. restrain the resident’s hand. put the hairbrush away and out of sight. try to dress the resident more quickly. give the resident the hairbrush to hold. 69 / 100 The client with an above the knee amputation is to use crutches until the prosthesis is being adjusted. In which of the following exercises would the nurse instruct the client to best prepare him for using crutches? Triceps stretching exercises Isometric shoulder exercises Quadriceps setting exercises Abdominal exercises Right Answer is: Triceps stretching exercises 70 / 100 A patient scheduled for an abdominal aneurysm repair. This is what type of surgical intervention? Transplant Palliative Curative Diagnostic Curative 71 / 100 The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of influenza who first began to experience symptoms yesterday. Antiviral therapy is prescribed and the nurse provides instructions to the client about the therapy. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions? “I will not get any colds or infections while taking this medication.†“Once I start the medication, I will no longer be contagious.†“This medication has minimal side effects and I can return to normal activities.†“I must take the medication exactly as prescribed.†Antiviral medications for influenza must be taken exactly as prescribed. These medications do not prevent the spread of influenza and clients are usually contagious for up to 2 days after the initiation of antiviral medications. Secondary bacterial infections may occur despite antiviral treatment. Side effects occur with these medications and may necessitate a change in activities, especially when driving or operating machinery if dizziness occurs. 72 / 100 The nurse is assessing a client with pleural effusion. The nurse expect to find: Deviation of the trachea towards the involved side Increased resonance with percussion of the involved area Reduced or absent of breath sounds at the base of the lung Moist crackles at the posterior of the lungs Compression of the lung by fluid that accumulates at the base of the lungs reduces expansion and air exchange. 73 / 100 The doctor has ordered Ampicillin 100mg every six hours IV push for an infant weighing 7kg. The suggested dose for infants is 25 to 50mg/kg/day in equally divided doses. The nurse should: Check the order with the doctor. Give the medication as ordered. Give half the amount ordered. Give the ordered amount q 12 hrs. The recommended dose ranges from 175mg to 350mg per day based on the infants weight. The order as written calls for 400mg per day for an infant weighing 7kg; therefore the nurse should check the order with the doctor before giving the medication. Answer A is incorrect because the dosage exceeds the recommended amount. Answers B and C are incorrect choices because they involve changing the doctors order. 74 / 100 A health care provider’s prescription reads clindamycin phosphate 0.3 g in 50 mL normal saline (NS) to be administered intravenously over 30 minutes. The medication label reads clindamycin phosphate 900 mg in 6 mL. The nurse prepares how many milliliters of the medication to administer the correct dose? 4 mL. 1 mL. 3 mL. 2 mL. You must convert 0.3 g to milligrams. In the metric system, to convert larger to smaller, multiply by 1000 or move the decimal 3 places to the right. Therefore, 0.3 g1â„4300 mg. Following conversion from grams to milligrams, use the formula to calculate the correct dose. Formula: (Desired AÌ‚ mL / Available )1â„4 Milliliters per dose (300mg AÌ‚ 6 mL / 900mg)1â„4 (1800 / 900) 1â„4 2mL 75 / 100 Situation : Melamine contamination in milk has brought world wide crisis both in the milk production sector as well as the health and economy. Being aware of the current events is one quality that a nurse should possess to prove that nursing is a dynamic profession that will adapt depending on the patient’s needs. Q. Most of the milks contaminated by melamine came from which country? Philippines Korea China India Right Answer is: China 76 / 100 Jennifer, an adolescent who is depressed and reported by his parents as having difficulty in school is brought to the community mental health center to be evaluated. Which of the following other health problems would the nurse suspect? Behavioral difficulties Anxiety disorder Labile moods Cognitive impairment Adolescents tend to demonstrate severe irritability and behavioral problems rather than simply a depressed mood. Anxiety disorder is more commonly associated with small children rather than with adolescents. Cognitive impairment is typically associated with delirium or dementia. Labile mood is more characteristic of a client with cognitive impairment or bipolar disorder. 77 / 100 Following emergency endotracheal intubation, you must verify tube placement and secure the tube. List in order the steps that are required to perform this function? a. Obtain an order for a chest x-ray to document tube placement. b. Secure the tube in place. c. Auscultate the chest during assisted ventilation. d. Confirm that the breath sounds are equal and bilateral. C, A, B, D C, D, B, A C, B, A, D A, B, D, C Auscultating and confirming equal bilateral breath sounds should be performed in rapid succession. If the sounds are not equal or if the sounds are heard over the mid-epigastric area, tube placement must be corrected immediately. Securing the tube is appropriate while waiting for the x-ray study. 78 / 100 The nurse calls together an inter disciplinary team with members from medicine, social services, the clergy, and nutritional services to care for a patient with aterminal illness. Which of the following types of care would the team MOST likely is providing? Palliative Respite Preventive Curative Preventive 79 / 100 The nurse is caring for a client with suspected AIDS dementia complex. The first sign of dementia in the client with AIDS is: Loss of concentration Changes in gait Seizures Problems with speech Loss of memory and loss of concentration are the first signs of AIDS dementia complex. Answers A C and D are symptoms associated with toxoplasmosis encephalitis so they are not correct. 80 / 100 The health education nurse provides instructions to a group of clients regarding measures that will assist in preventing skin cancer. Which instructions should the nurse provide? Select all that apply. 1. Sunscreen should be applied every 8 hours. 2. Use sunscreen when participating in out-door activities. 3. Wear a hat, opaque clothing, and sunglasses when in the sun. 4. Avoid sun exposure in the late afternoon and early evening hours. 5. Examine your body monthly for any lesions that may be suspicious. 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3 2, 3, 5 1, 4, 5 The client should be instructed to avoid sun exposure between the hours of brightest sunlight: 10 a.m. and 4 p.m. Sunscreen, a hat, opaque clothing, and sunglasses should be worn for outdoor activities. The client should be instructed to examine the body monthly for the appearance of any cancerous or any precancerous lesions. Sun screen should be reapplied every 2 to 3 hours and after swimming or sweating; otherwise, the duration of protection is reduced. 81 / 100 Physicians orders for a client with acute pancreatitis include the following: strict NPO and nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. The nurse recognizes that withholding oral intake will: Decrease the clients need for insulin Eliminate the need for pain medication Prevent the secretion of gastric acid Reduce the secretion of pancreatic enzymes Withholding oral intake will help stop the inflammatory process by reducing the secretion of pancreatic enzymes. Answer B is incorrect because the client requires exogenous insulin. Answer C is incorrect because it does not prevent the secretion of gastric acid. Answer D is incorrect because it does not eliminate the need for pain medication. 82 / 100 Situation: – Nurse Anna is a new BSEN graduate and has just passed her Licensure Examination for Nurses in the Philippines. She has likewise been hired as a new Community Health Nurse in one of the Rural Health Units in their City, which of the following conditions may be acceptable TRUTHS applied to Community Health Nursing Practice. Q. . A very important part of the Community Health Nursing Assessment Process includes: coordination with other sectors in relation to health concerns. evaluation structures arid qualifications of health center team. the application of professional judgment in estimating importance of facts to family and community. carrying out nursing procedures as per plan of action. the application of professional judgment in estimating importance of facts to family and community. 83 / 100 Situation : – You are actively practicing nurse who just finished your Graduate Studies. You earned the value of Research and would like to utilize the knowledge and skills gained in the application of research to Nursing service. The following questions apply to research. Q. Which of the following studies is based on quantitative research? A study examining client’s feelings before, during and after a bone marrow aspiration A study exploring factors influencing weight control behavior A study examining the bereavement process in spouses of clients with terminal cancer A study measuring the effects of sleep deprivation on wound healing A study measuring the effects of sleep deprivation on wound healing 84 / 100 The nurse is checking the clients central venous pressure. The nurse should place the zero of the manometer at the: PMI Erbs point Tail of Spence Phlebostatic axis The phlebostatic axis is located at the fifth intercostals space midaxillary line and is the correct placement of the manometer. The PMI or point of maximal impulse is located at the fifth intercostals space midclavicular line so answer B is incorrect. Erbs point is the point at which you can hear the valves close simultaneously making answer C incorrect. The Tail of Spence (the upper outer quadrant of the breast) is the area where most breast cancers are located and has nothing to do with placement of a manometer; thus answer D is incorrect. 85 / 100 SITUATION: Mr. Dela Isla, a client with early Dementia exhibits thought process disturbances. Q. As the nurse talks to the daughter of Mr. Dela Isla, which of the following statement of the daughter will require the nurse to give further teaching? I help her do some tasks he cannot do for himself Ill turn off the TV when we go to another room I know the hallucinations are parts of the disease I told her she is wrong and I explained to her what is right Hallucinations and delusions are part of DEMENTIA and is termed as ORGANIC PSYCHOSES. The daughter needs further teaching when she try to bargain, explain, disapprove or advise a client with dementia. the client has an impaired judgement, concentration, thinking, reasoning and memory and has inability to learn that is why institutional care for clients with dementia is always required. The disease is progressive and is not preventable. 86 / 100 Situation : – You are the nurse in the Out-Patient-Department and during your shift you encountered multiple children’s condition. The following questions apply. Q. You assessed a child with visible severe wasting, he has: edema marasmus kwashiorkor LBM marasmus 87 / 100 Immobility impairs bladder elimination, resulting in such disorders as Urine retention, bladder distention, and infection Increased urine acidity and relaxation of the perineal muscles, causing incontinence Decreased calcium and phosphate levels in the urine Diuresis, natriuresis, and decreased urine specific gravity The immobilized patient commonly suffers from urine retention caused by decreased muscle tone in the perineum. This leads to bladder distention and urine stagnation, which provide an excellent medium for bacterial growth leading to infection. Immobility also results in more alkaline urine with excessive amounts of calcium, sodium and phosphate, a gradual decrease in urine production, and an increased specific gravity. 88 / 100 A female client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. Which of the following is one of the most common metastasis sites for cancer cells? Reproductive tract Colon Liver White blood cells (WBCs) The liver is one of the five most common cancer metastasis sites. The others are the lymph nodes, lung, bone, and brain. The colon, reproductive tract, and WBCs are occasional metastasis sites. 89 / 100 Situation :– At the medical-surgical ward, the nurse must also be concerned about drug interactions. Q. The RN should also know that some drugs have increased absorption when infused in PVC container. How will you administer drugs such as insulin, nitroglycerine hydralazine to promote better therapeutic drug effects? Inject the drugs as close to the IV injection site Incorporate to the IV solution Administer by fast drip Use volumetric chamber Right Answer is: Use volumetric chamber 90 / 100 A patient with a pulmonary embolus and a nursing diagnosis of impaired gas exchange has an order to obtain arterial blood gases. The FIRST intervention by the nurse is to: Gather the equipment Explain the procedure Document the procedure Perform an Allens test Perform an Allens test 91 / 100 Which of the following meal selections is appropriate for the client with celiac disease? Cheese pizza and Kool-Aid Toast jam and apple juice Peanut butter cookies and milk Rice Krispies bar and milk Foods containing rice or millet are permitted in the diet of the client with celiac disease. Answers A B and D are not permitted because they contain gluten which exacerbates the symptoms of celiac disease; therefore they are incorrect. 92 / 100 Nurse Sarah expects to note an elevated serum glucose level in a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). Which other laboratory finding should the nurse anticipate? Serum alkalosis Elevated serum acetone level Below-normal serum potassium level Serum ketone bodies A client with HHNS has an overall body deficit of potassium resulting from diuresis, which occurs secondary to the hyperosmolar, hyperglycemic state caused by the relative insulin deficiency. An elevated serum acetone level and serum ketone bodies are characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis. Metabolic acidosis, not serum alkalosis, may occur in HHNS. 93 / 100 A patient with the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being treated with a low-molecular weight heparin.(LMWH). The patient reports increased pain in the affected extremely. The nurse observe the affected extremity has increased in size by 0.2 cm (0.8 inches) during the past 24 hours. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Apply dry heal to the site Elevate the extremity Reinforce the importance of ankle circling exercises Administer the next dose of LMWH before the scheduled time. Elevate the extremity 94 / 100 Situation: Breast cancer is the 2nd most common type of cancer after lung cancer and 99% of which, occurs in women. Survival rate is 98% if this is detected early and treated promptly. Carmen is a 53 year old patient in the high risk group for breast cancer was recently diagnosed with Breast Cancer. Q. All of the following are factors that said to contribute to the development of breast cancer EXCEPT: Increasing age Prolonged exposure to estrogen such as an early menarche or late menopause, nulliparity and children after age 30. Genetics Prolonged intake of tamoxifen (Nolvadex) Right Answer is: Prolonged intake of tamoxifen (Nolvadex) 95 / 100 Situation : An entry level nurse should be able to apply theoretical knowledge in the performance of the basic nursing skills. Q. The best time for collecting the sputum specimen for culture: Upon waking up in the morning Anytime of the day. Before retiring at night Before meal Right Answer is: Upon waking up in the morning 96 / 100 A woman she is on the18 week gestation her physicaian will insert a fine needle in her abdomen for anlaysis the nurse is assistant in this procedure as nurse what is the color of liquid you expect to come out: Yellow Green browen White Browen Yellow 97 / 100 CHN is a community-based practice. Which best explains this statement? The service are based on the available resources within the community The service is provided in the natural environment of people The nurse has to conduct community diagnosis to determine nursing needs and problems Priority setting is based on the magnitude of the health problems identified Community-based practice means providing care to people in their own natural environments: the home, school and workplace, for example. 98 / 100 Situation :– Concerted work efforts among members of the surgical team is essential to the success of the surgical procedure. Q. Minimally invasive surgery is very much into technology. Aside from the usual surgical team who else to be present when a client undergoes laparoscopic surgery? Electrician Biomedical technician Information technician Laboratory technician Right Answer is: Biomedical technician 99 / 100 A high school student is referred to the school nurse for suspected substance abuse. Following the nurse’s assessment and interventions, what would be the most desirable outcome? The student agrees to inform his parents of the problem. The student accepts a referral to a substance abuse counselor. The student reports increased comfort with making choices. The student discusses conflicts over drug use. All of the outcomes stated are desirable; however, the best outcome is that the student would agree to seek the assistance of a professional substance abuse counselor. 100 / 100 Nurse Michelle calculates the IV flow rate for a postoperative client. The client receives 3,000 ml of Ringer’s lactate solution IV to run over 24 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 10 drops per milliliter. The nurse should regulate the client’s IV to deliver how many drops per minute? 18 21 35 40 3000 x 10 divided by 24 x 60. Your score is The average score is 0% LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 0% Restart quiz