NCLEX RN Practice Test 5 0% 0 NCLEX NCLEX RN Practice Test 5 This NCLEX RN Practice 5 contains 100 questions. Attempt them all and check your knowledge 1 / 100 When trying to communicate with a resident who speaks a different language than the nurse aide, the nurse aide should repeat words often if the resident does not understand. face the resident and speak softly when talking. assume when the resident nods his/her head that the message is understood. use pictures and gestures. use pictures and gestures. 2 / 100 Within a few hours of alcohol withdrawal, nurse John should assess the male client for the presence of: Disorientation, paranoia, tachycardia Tremors, fever, profuse diaphoresis Irritability, heightened alertness, jerky movements Yawning, anxiety, convulsions Alcohol is a central nervous system depressant. These symptoms are the body’s neurological adaptation to the withdrawal of alcohol. 3 / 100 Aclient in preterm labor (31 weeks) who is dilated to 4 cm has been started on magnesium sulfate and contractions have stopped. If the client’s labor can be inhibited for the next 48 hours, the nurse anticipates a prescription for which medication? Dinoprostone vaginal insert Rho(D) immune globulin Nalbuphine Betamethasone Betamethasone, a glucocorticoid, is given to increase the production of surfactant to stimulate fetal lung maturation. It is administered to clients in preterm labor at 28 to 32 weeks of gestation if the labor can be inhibited for 48 hours. Nalbuphine is an opioid analgesic. Rho(D) immune globulin is given to Rh-negative clients to prevent sensitization. Dinoprostone vaginal insert is a prostaglandin given to ripen and soften the cervix and to stimulate uterine contractions. 4 / 100 Situation : Mastery of research design determination is essential in passing the Nurse Licensure Examination. Q. Gen is conducting a research study on how mark, an AIDS client lives his life. A design suited for this is: Case Study Historical Phenomenological Ethnographic Phenomenological 5 / 100 A nurse is teaching an infertile couple about how the sperm travel through the man’s body during ejaculation. Please put the following five major structures in or- der, beginning with the place where spermatogenesis occurs and continuing through the path that the sperm and semen travel until ejaculation. 1. Epididymis. 2. Prostate. 3. Testes. 4. Urethra. 5. Vas deferens 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 1, 3, 4, 5, 2 4, 2, 3, 1, 5 3, 1, 5, 2, 4. The sperm are produced in the testes (3). They then proceed to the epididymis (1) where they mature. The vas deferens (5) is the conduit through which the sperm first travel during ejaculation. The prostate (2), encircling the neck of the urethra, produces a fluid that protects the sperm, and, finally, the sperm exit the male body via the urethra (4). 6 / 100 The nurse is caring for a client with epilepsy who is to receive phenytoin sodium (Dilantin) 100mg IV push. The client has an IV of D51/2NS infusing at 100mL/hr. When administering the Dilantin which is the appropriate initial nursing action? Insert a 16g IV catheter. Flush the IV line with normal saline. Obtain an ambu bag and put it at bedside. Premedicate with promethiazine (phenergan) IV push. Flushing of the line is required when giving Dilantin IV push because Dilantin crystallizes in the tubing if D5W is present. Answers A B and D would not be appropriate or necessary for this procedure. 7 / 100 The nurse is monitoring the progress of a client in labor. Which finding should be reported to the physician immediately? Frequent urination The presence of scant bloody discharge Moderate uterine contractions The presence of green-tinged amniotic fluid Green-tinged amniotic fluid is indicative of meconium staining. This finding indicates fetal distress. The presence of scant bloody discharge is normal as are frequent urination and moderate uterine contractions making answers A B and D incorrect. 8 / 100 The nurse enters the room of the client on airborne precaution due to tuberculosis. Which of the following are appropriate actions by the nurse? 1. She wears mask, covering the nose and mouth 2. She washes her hands before and after removing gloves, after suctioning the client’s secretion 3. She removes gloves and hands before leaving the client’s room 4. She discards contaminated suction catheter tip in trashcan found in the clients room 1,2,3,4 1,3 1,2 1,2,3 All soiled equipment used in an infectious patient are disposed inside the client’s room to prevent contamination outside the room. Using the mask to cover both nose and mouth is correct. Hands are washed before removing the gloves and before and after your enter the client’s room. Gloves and contaminated suction tip are thrown in the trash found in the client’s room. 9 / 100 Situation : As a perioperative nurse, you are aware of the correct processing methods for preparing instruments and other devices for patient use to prevent infection. Q. Bronchoscope, Thermometer, Endoscope, ET tube, Cystoscope are all BEST sterilized using which of the following? 2% Glutaraldehyde immersion for 10 hours Flash sterilizer at 132 degree Celsius in 3 minutes Autoclaving at 121 degree Celsius in 15 minutes Ethylene Oxide gas aeration for 20 hours Right Answer is: 2% Glutaraldehyde immersion for 10 hours 10 / 100 Objective data is also called: Covert Overt Inference Evaluation Overt 11 / 100 A woman’s temperature has just risen 0.4°F and will remain elevated during the re- mainder of her cycle. She expects to menstruate in about 2 weeks. Which of the following hormones is responsible for the change? Luteinizing hormone (LH). Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). Progesterone. Estrogen. 1. Estrogen begins to elevate before ovulation. It is not responsible for the temperature elevation. 2. Progesterone elevation occurs after ovulation and spikes at about 5-6 days after ovulation. Progesterone is thermogenic—that is, heat producing. Progesterone is the reason why women’s temperatures are elevated following ovulation. 3. LH spikes at the time of ovulation. 4. FSH promotes the maturation of the ovum. 12 / 100 A parent of a 3-year-old tells a clinic nurse that the child is rebelling constantly and having temper tantrums. Using Erikson’s psychosocial development theory, which instructions should the nurse provide to the parent? Select all that apply. 1. Set limits on the child’s behavior. 2. Ignore the child when this behavior occurs. 3. Allow the behavior, because this is normal at this age period. 4. Provide a simple explanation of why the behavior is unacceptable. 5. Punish the child every time the child says “no†to change the behavior. 1, 2, 4 1, 3, 5 1, 4 2, 3, 5 According to Erikson, the child focuses on gaining some basic control over self and the environment and independence between ages 1 and 3 years. Gaining independence often means that the child has to rebel against the parents’wishes. Saying things like “no†or “mine†and having temper tantrums are common during this period of development. Being consistent and setting limits on the child’s behavior are necessary elements. Providing a simple explanation of why certain behaviors are unacceptable is an appropriate action. Options 2 and 3 do not address the child’s behavior. Option 5 is likely to produce a negative response during this normal developmental pattern. 13 / 100 Mr. Dela Rosa is suspected to have malaria after a business trip in Palawan. The most important diagnostic test in malaria is: ELISA Urinalysis Peripheral blood smear WBC count Peripheral blood smear 14 / 100 The nurse is assisting a client with diverticulosis to select appropriate foods. Which food should be avoided? Cucumber salad Fresh peaches Bran Yeast rolls The client with diverticulitis should avoid foods with seeds. The foods in answers A B and D are allowed; in fact bran cereal and fruit will help prevent constipation. 15 / 100 For a cognitively impaired client who cannot accurately report pain, what is the first action that you should take? Closely assess for nonverbal signs such as grimacing or rocking. Give the maximum PRS dose within the minimum time frame for relief. Obtain baseline behavioral indicators from family members. Look at the MAR and chart, to note the time of the last dose and response. Obtain baseline behavioral indicators from family members. Complete information from the family should be obtained during the initial comprehensive history and assessment. If this information is not obtained, the nursing staff will have to rely on observation of nonverbal behavior and careful documentation to determine pain and relief patterns. 16 / 100 A client with end stage renal disease is being managed with peritoneal dialysis. If the dialysate return is slowed the nurse should tell the client to: Change position or turn side to side. Skip the next scheduled infusion. Irrigate the dialyzing catheter with saline. Gently retract the dialyzing catheter. The nurse should tell the client to change position or turn side to side in order to improve the dialysate return. Answers A B and C are incorrect ways of managing peritoneal dialysis; therefore they are incorrect choices. 17 / 100 A client who reportedly consumes 1 qt of vodka daily is admitted for alcohol detoxification. To try to prevent alcohol withdrawal symptoms, the physician is most likely to prescribe which drug? lithium carbonate (Eskalith) clozapine (Clozaril) thiothixene (Navane) lorazepam (Ativan) The best choice for preventing or treating alcohol withdrawal symptoms is lorazepam, a benzodiazepine. Clozapine and thiothixene are antipsychotic agents, and lithium carbonate is an antimanic agent; these drugs aren’t used to manage alcohol withdrawal syndrome. 18 / 100 Situation : As a nurse you are expected to participate in initiating or participating in the conduct of research students to improve nursing practice. You to be updated on the latest trends and issues affected the profession and the best practices arrived at by the profession. Q. You would like to compare the support system of patients with chronic illness to those with acute illness. Considering that the hypothesis was: “Clients with chronic illness have lesser support system than clients with acute illness.†What type of research is this? Correlational, Non experimental Descriptive Experimental Quasi Experimental Descriptive 19 / 100 The nurse is caring for a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The major complication associated with systemic lupus erythematosus is: Nephritis Cardiomegaly Desquamation Meningitis The major complication of SLE is lupus nephritis which results in end-stage renal disease. SLE affects the musculoskeletal integumentary renal nervous and cardiovascular systems but the major complication is renal involvement; therefore answers B and D are incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because the SLE produces a butterfly rash not desquamation. 20 / 100 A patient who is scheduled for a tonsillectomy is in pre operative unit. The nurse notes an order for pre anesthetic medication to be given “on call to operation roomâ€.The nurse should give this medication: Only if clearly needed after assessment Immediately upon being notified to prepare the patient for transport Upon the patient’s arrival in the operation room When the operation room staff arrive to transport the patient Upon the patient’s arrival in the operation room 21 / 100 The nurse is evaluating the condition of a client after pericardiocentesis performed to treat cardiac tamponade. Which observation would indicate that the procedure was effective? A rise in blood pressure Jugular venous distention Muffled heart sounds Client expressions of dyspnea Following pericardiocentesis, the client usually expresses immediate relief. Heart sounds are no longer muffled or distant and blood pressure increases. Distended neck veins are a sign of increased venous pressure, which occurs with cardiac tamponade. 22 / 100 The physician has ordered Eskalith (lithium carbonate) 500mg three times a day and Risperdal (risperidone) 2mg twice daily for a client admitted with bipolar disorder acute manic episodes. The best explanation for the clients medication regimen is: The client will be more compliant with a medication that allows some feelings of hypomania. The clients symptoms of acute mania are typical of undiagnosed schizophrenia. Antipsychotic medication is used to manage behavioral excitement until mood stabilization occurs. Antipsychotic medication prevents psychotic symptoms commonly associated with the use of mood stabilizers. It takes 1-2 weeks for mood stabilizers to achieve a therapeutic effect; therefore antipsychotic medications can also be used during the first few days or weeks to manage behavioral excitement. Answers A and D are not true statements and therefore are incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because the combination of medications will not allow for hypomania. 23 / 100 A 78 year-old man presents to his care provider with persistent abdominal and back pain. He also occasionally has numbness and pain in the legs. On examination a palpable mass in the lower abdominal midline is palpated. On auscultation a blowing sound is heard over his mass. The nurse is concerned about possible rupture. Which additional finding most significantly indicates the patient is at an increased risk? Hypertension Decreased oxygen saturation Constipation High blood sugar Hypertension 24 / 100 Nurse Jenny should caution a female client who is sexually active in taking Isoniazid (INH) because the drug has which of the following side effects? Prevents ovulation Has a mutagenic effect on ova Increases the risk of vaginal infection Decreases the effectiveness of oral contraceptives Isoniazid (INH) interferes in the effectiveness of oral contraceptives and clients of childbearing age should be counseled to use an alternative form of birth control while taking this drug. 25 / 100 Which is the following is the most appropriate during the orientation phase? identification of more effective ways of coping patients perception on the reason of her hospitalization establishment of regular meeting of schedules exploration of inadequate coping skills Orientation phase is synonymous with CONTRACT ESTABLISHMENT. Here, the nurse will establish regular meeting of schedule, agreements and giving the client information that there is a TERMINATION. Letter A and B assesses the client’s coping skills, which is in the working phase and so is letter B. In working phase, The nurse assesses the coping skills of the client and formulate plans and intervention to correct deficiencies. Although assessment is also made in the orientation phase, COPING SKILLS are assessed in the working phase. 26 / 100 Situation : Transurethral resection prostatectomy, (TURP) is performed to Mr. Recto, 60 years old, due to prostate enlargement. Post operatively he has continuous irrigation (Cystoclysis). Q. Nursing assessment is vital to prevent and detect indications of postoperative complications. The following are the possible complications after prostatectomy except: Urethral structure The drainage has stopped Residual urine Erectile dysfunction Right Answer is: Residual urine 27 / 100 The nurse is providing home care instructions to the parents of a 10-year-old child with hemophilia. Which sport activity should the nurse suggest for this child? Soccer Basketball Field hockey Swimming Hemophilia refers to a group of bleeding disorders resulting from a deficiency of specific coagulation proteins. Children with hemophilia need to avoid contact sports and to take precautions such as wearing elbow and knee pads and helmets with other sports. The safe activity for them is swimming. 28 / 100 A client who has undergone a cholecystectomy asks the nurse whether there are any dietary restrictions that must be followed. Nurse Hilary would recognize that the dietary teaching was well understood when the client tells a family member that: “Most people need to eat a high protein diet for 12 months after surgery†“Most people can tolerate regular diet after this type of surgery†“I should not eat those foods that upset me before the surgery†“I should avoid fatty foods as long as I live†It may take 4 to 6 months to eat anything, but most people can eat anything they want. 29 / 100 A client is suffering from low back pain. Which of the following exercises will strengthen the lower back muscle of the client? Swimming Diving Tennis Basketball Walking and swimming are very helpful in strengthening back muscles for the client suffering from lower back pain. 30 / 100 Which criteria refer to the ability of the instrument to detect fine differences among the subjects being studied? Reliability Validity Sensitivity Objectivity Sensitivity is an attribute of the instrument that allow the respondents to distinguish differences of the options where to choose from 31 / 100 A child visits the clinic for a 6-week checkup after a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. In addition to assessing hearing, the nurse should include an assessment of the child’s: Swallowing and smell Taste and smell Swallowing and speech Taste and speech Swelling can obstruct nasal breathing, interfering with the senses of taste and smell. 32 / 100 Before formulating a plan of care for a 6 year old boy with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), nurse Kyla is aware that the initial aim of therapy is to help the client to: Mainstream into a regular class in school Avoid his own regressive behavior Develop language skills Recognize himself as an independent person of worth Academic deficits, an inability to function within constraints required of certain settings, and negative peer attitudes often lead to low self-esteem. 33 / 100 The nurse is caring for a four-year-old with cerebral palsy. Which nursing intervention will help ready the child for rehabilitative services? Providing musical tapes to provide auditory training Encouraging play with a video game to improve muscle coordination Providing suckers and pinwheels to help strengthen tongue movement Patching one of the eyes to help strengthen the ocular muscles The nurse can help ready the child with cerebral palsy for speech therapy by providing activities that help the child develop tongue control. Most children with cerebral palsy have visual and auditory difficulties that require glasses or hearing devices rather than rehabilitative training; therefore answers A and C are incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because video games are not appropriate to the age or developmental level for the child with cerebral palsy. 34 / 100 Needles, scalpels, broken glass and lancets are considered as injurious wastes. As a nurse, it is correct to put them at disposal via a/an Reused PET Bottles Puncture proof container Yellow trashcan with a tag “INJURIOUS WASTES†Black trashcan Needles, scalpels and other sharps are to be disposed in a puncture proof container. 35 / 100 The nurse performs a physical assessment on a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Findings include a fasting blood glucose level of 120mg/dL (6.8 mmol/L), temperature of 101 °F (38.3 °C), pulse of 102 beats/minute, respirations of 22 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 142/72 mm Hg. Which finding would be the priority concern to the nurse? Temperature Blood pressure Respiration Pulse In the client with type 2 diabetes mellitus, an elevated temperature may indicate infection. Infection is a leading cause of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome in the client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The other findings are within normal limits. 36 / 100 Bethanechol chloride is prescribed for a client with urinary retention. Which disorder would be a contraindication to the administration of this medication? Urinary strictures Neurogenic atony Gastroesophageal reflux Gastric atony Bethanechol chloride can be hazardous to clients with urinary tract obstruction or weakness of the bladder wall. The medication has the ability to contract the bladder and thereby increase pressure within the urinary tract. Elevation of pressure within the urinary tract could damage or rupture the bladder in clients with these conditions. 37 / 100 Situation: Developing countries such as the Philippines suffer from high infant and child mortality rates. Thus, as a management to the existing problem, the WHO and UNICEF launched the IMCI. The dosage of Vit. A supplement given to Baby Len would be: 10,000 IU 200,000 IU 20,000 IU 100,000 IU 100,000 IU 38 / 100 In vaginal delivery done in the hospital setting, the doctor routinely orders an oxytocin to be given to the mother parenterally. The oxytocin is usually given after the placenta has been delivered and not before because: Oxytocin will facilitate placental delivery Giving oxytocin will ensure complete delivery of the placenta Oxytocin can make the cervix close and thus trap the placenta inside Oxytocin will prevent bleeding Answer: (B) Oxytocin can make the cervix close and thus trap the placenta inside The action of oxytocin is to make the uterus contract as well make the cervix close. If it is given prior to placental delivery, the placenta will be trapped inside because the action of the drug is almost immediate if given parentally. 39 / 100 While pacing in the hall, a client with paranoid schizophrenia runs to the nurse and says, “Why are you poisoning me? I know you work for central thought control! You can keep my thoughts. Give me back my soul!†How should the nurse respond during the early stage of the therapeutic process? “I’m a nurse. I’m not poisoning you. It’s against the nursing code of ethics.†“I’m a nurse, and you’re a client in the hospital. I’m not going to harm you.†“I sense anger. Are you feeling angry today?†“I’m not poisoning you. And how could I possibly steal your soul?†The nurse should directly orient a delusional client to reality, especially to place and person. Options A and C may encourage further delusions by denying poisoning and offering information related to the delusion. Validating the client’s feelings, as in option D, occurs during a later stage in the therapeutic process. 40 / 100 During a unit card game a client with acute mania begins to sing loudly as she starts to undress. The nurse should: Exchange the cards for a checker board. Cover the client and walk her to her room. Send the other clients to their rooms. Ignore the clients behavior. The nurse should first provide for the clients safety including protecting her from an embarrassing situation. Answer A is incorrect because it allows the client to continue unacceptable behavior. Answer B is incorrect because it does not stop the clients behavior. Answer C is incorrect because it focuses on the other clients not the client with inappropriate behavior. 41 / 100 When is the first certification of nursing informatics given? 1990-1993 1994-1996 2001-2002 2005-2008 2001-2002 42 / 100 Three days ago a patient underwent an invasive surgery with an open wound . The patient is febrile with drop in blood pressure . Laboratory test results shows elevated WBC count . This could be possible presentation of : Sepsis Excess fluid volume Atelectasis Internal haemorrhaging Sepsis 43 / 100 A client with vaginal cancer is being treated with a radioactive vaginal implant. The clients husband asks the nurse if he can spend the night with his wife. The nurse should explain that: Overnight stays by family members is against hospital policy. Visitation is limited to 30 minutes when the implant is in place. There is no need for him to stay because staffing is adequate. His wife will rest much better knowing that he is at home. Clients with radium implants should have close contact limited to 30 minutes per visit. The general rule is limiting time spent exposed to radium putting distance between people and the radium source and using lead to shield against the radium. Teaching the family member these principles is extremely important. Answers A B and C are not empathetic and do not address the question; therefore they are incorrect. 44 / 100 The home care nurse visits a client recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus who is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily. The client asks the nurse how to store the unopened vials of insulin. The nurse should tell the client to take which action? Keep the insulin at room temperature. Store the insulin in a dark, dry place. Freeze the insulin. Refrigerate the insulin. Insulin in unopened vials should be stored under refrigeration until needed. Vials should not be frozen. When stored unopened under refrigeration, insulin can be used up to the expiration date on the vial. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect. 45 / 100 Situation : You are assigned to take care of a group of patients across the lifespan. In conflict management, the win-win approach occurs when: Both parties involved are committed in solving the conflict There are two conflicts and the parties agree to each one The conflict is settled out of court so the legal system mandates parties win. Each party gives in on 50% of the disagreement making the conflict Both parties involved are committed in solving the conflict 46 / 100 The nurse notes that a 6-year-old child does not recognize that objects exist even when the objects are outside of the visual field. Based on this observation, which action should the nurse take? Teach the child how to visually scan the environment. Report the observation to the health care provider. Provide additional lighting for the child during play activities. Move the objects in the child’s direct field of vision. According to Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, it is normal for the infant or toddler not to recognize that objects continue to be in existence, even if out of the visual field; however, this is abnormal for the 6-year-old. If a 6-year- old child does not recognize that objects still exist even when outside the visual field, the child is not progressing normally through the developmental stages. The nurse should report this finding to the health care provider. Options 2, 3, and 4 delay necessary follow-up and treatment. 47 / 100 The RN is making assignments for clients hospitalized on a neurological unit. Which client should be assigned to the LPN? A client with a C3 injury immobilized by Crutchfield tongs A client with a lumbar laminectomy A client with exacerbation of multiple sclerosis A client with hemiplegia and a urinary tract infection The client with a lumbar laminectomy can be safely cared for by the LPN. Answer A is incorrect because the client with a high cervical injury immobilized by skeletal traction is best cared for by the RN. Answers B and D are incorrect choices because these clients have conditions that require intravenous medication which requires the skill of the RN. 48 / 100 While feeding a newborn with an unrepaired cardiac defect, the nurse keeps on assessing the condition of the client. The nurse notes that the newborn’s respiration is 72 breaths per minute. What would be the initial nursing action? Burp the newborn. Stop the feeding. Continue the feeding. Notify the physician. A normal respiratory rate for a newborn is 30-40 breaths per minute. 49 / 100 Among the following people, who requires the greatest caloric intake? An individual in a long state of glycogenolysis A pregnant individual An individual in a long state of gluconeogenesis An adolescent with a BMI of 25 The human body requires glucose for the brain and nervous system, and a diet that has very few or no dietary carbohydrates forces it to generate this glucose from protein through gluconeogenesis, with an efficiency of approximately 57% (protein and carbohydrate are approximately equal in calorific value; each has about four kilocalories per gram, but gluconeogenesis can produce only 57g of glucose from 100g of protein). This could be a significant contributor to metabolic advantage. 50 / 100 What are the important considerations that the nurse must remember after the placenta is delivered? 1.Check if the placenta is complete including the membranes 2.Check if the cord is long enough for the baby 3.Check if the umbilical cord has 3 blood vessels 4.Check if the cord has a meaty portion and a shiny portion 1 and 3 2 and 4 2 and 3 1, 3 and 4 Answer: (A) 1 and 3 The nurse after delivering the placenta must ensure that all the cotyledons and the membranes of the placenta are complete. Also, the nurse must check if the umbilical cord is normal which means it contains the 3 blood vessels: 1 vein and 2 arteries. 51 / 100 Which of the following is not true about sterilization, cleaning and disinfection? Some organism are easily destroyed, while other, with coagulated protein requires longer time The number of organism is directly proportional to the length of time required for sterilization Sterilization is the complete destruction of all viable microorganism including spores Equipment with small lumen are easier to clean Equipment with large lumen are easier to clean compared to those with small lumen. Other choices are correct. 52 / 100 Situation: Mental Retardation is an increasingly common childhood disorder that impairs learning. Q. Which of the following is true with regards to Mild Mental Retardation? Trainable, Can reach up to 2nd grade and can reach the maturity of a 7 year old Custodial and barely trainable Requires total care throughout life, Mental age of a young infant Educable, can reach up to grade 6 and has a maturity of a 12 year old Educable, can reach up to grade 6 and has a maturity of a 12 year old 53 / 100 Situation : With the increasing documented cases of CANCER the best alternative to treatment still remains to be PREVENTION. The following conditions apply. Who among the following are recipients of the secondary level of care for cancer cases? Those under early case detection Those under supportive care Those scheduled for surgery Those under going treatment Those under early case detection 54 / 100 A1-month-old infant is seen in a clinic and is diagnosed with developmental dysplasia of the hip. On assessment, the nurse understands that which finding should be noted in this condition? An apparent lengthened femur on the affected side Asymmetrical adduction of the affected hip when the infant is placed supine with the knees and hips flexed Limited range of motion in the affected hip Symmetry of the gluteal skinfolds when the infant is placed prone and the legs are extended against the examining table In developmental dysplasia of the hip, the head of the femur is seated improperly in the acetabulum or hip socket of the pelvis. Asymmetrical and restricted abduction of the affected hip, when the child is placed supine with the knees and hips flexed, would be an assessment finding in developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants beyond the newborn period. Other findings include an apparent short femur on the affected side, asymmetry of the gluteal skinfolds, and limited range of motion in the affected extremity. 55 / 100 When a pregnant woman experiences leg cramps, the correct nursing intervention to relieve the muscle cramps is: Allow the woman to exercise Let the woman lie down and dorsiflex the foot towards the knees Let the woman walk for a while Ask the woman to raise her legs Leg cramps is caused by the contraction of the gastrocnimeus (leg muscle). Thus, the intervention is to stretch the muscle by dosiflexing the foot of the affected leg towards the knee. 56 / 100 Josefina is to be discharged on a regimen of lithium carbonate. In the teaching plan for discharge the nurse should include: Encouraging the client to have blood levels checked as ordered. Advising the client to watch the diet carefully Suggesting that the client take the pills with milk Reminding the client that a CBC must be done once a month. Blood levels must be checked monthly or bimonthly when the client is on maintenance therapy because there is only a small range between therapeutic and toxic levels. 57 / 100 Ahealth care provider has written a prescription to discontinue an intravenous (IV) line. The nurse should obtain which item from the unit supply area for applying pressure to the site after removing th e IV cath eter? Elastic wrap Adhesive bandage Sterile 2 AÌ‚ 2 gauze Povidone iodine swab A dry sterile dressing such as a sterile 2 AÌ‚ 2 gauze is used to apply pressure to the discontinued IVsite. This material is absorbent, sterile, and nonirritating. Apovidone iodine swab would irritate the opened puncture site and would not stop the blood flow. An adhesive bandage or elastic wrap may be used to cover the site once hemostasis has occurred. 58 / 100 A child is admitted with temperature of 38.5 C (101.3 F), loss of appetite and vomiting The nurse observes several joints are red, swollen, warm and tender to touch. A non pruritic rash is on the child’s trunk. Laboratory test results include an elevate erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), a positive creactive protein, and an elevated white blood cell count (WBC). The nurse should initiate the plan of care for: Meningitis Congestive heart failure Rotovirus Acute rheumatic fever Acute rheumatic fever 59 / 100 Dennis has a lithium level of 2.4 mEq/L. The nurse immediately would assess the client for which of the following signs or symptoms? Fecal incontinence Weakness Blurred vision Diarrhea At lithium levels of 2 to 2.5 mEq/L the client will experienced blurred vision, muscle twitching, severe hypotension, and persistent nausea and vomiting. With levels between 1.5 and 2 mEq/L the client experiencing vomiting, diarrhea, muscle weakness, ataxia, dizziness, slurred speech, and confusion. At lithium levels of 2.5 to 3 mEq/L or higher, urinary and fecal incontinence occurs, as well as seizures, cardiac dysrhythmias, peripheral vascular collapse, and death. 60 / 100 A home care nurse reviews the laboratory results for a postpartum patient who had a caesarean section . Which of the following indicates possible wound infection ? Increased hemoglobin Increased WBC Decreased hematocrit level Decreased platelet Increased WBC 61 / 100 SITUATION : John Smith was diagnosed with Acute Close Angle Glaucoma. He is being seen by Nurse Jet. Q. When caring for Mr. Smith, Jet teaches the client to avoid Reading books Bending at the waist Going out in the sun Watching large screen TVs Bending at the waist increase IOP and should be avoided by patients with glaucoma. Treatment for glaucoma is usually for life. Patients are given laxatives to avoid stratining at the stool. They should avoid all activities that will lead to sudden IOP increase like bending at the waist. Clients should bend at the knees. 62 / 100 Nurse Jamie is administering the initial total parenteral nutrition solution to a client. Which of the following assessments requires the nurse’s immediate attention? Blood glucose of 350 mg/dl Temperature of 37.5 degrees Celsius Urine output of 300 cc in 4 hours Poor skin turgor Total parenteral nutrition formulas contain dextrose in concentrations of 10% or greater to supply 20% to 50% of the total calories. Blood glucose levels should be checked every 4 to 6 hours. A sliding scale dose of insulin may be ordered to maintain the blood glucose level below 200mg/dl. 63 / 100 Stage of GAS Characterized by adaptation Stage of Exhaustion Stage of Homeostasis Stage of Resistance Stage of Alarm Stage of Resistance 64 / 100 Situation : – As a Community Health Nurse relating with people in different communities, and in the implementation of health programs and projects you experience vividly as well the varying forms of leadership and management from the Barangay Level to the Local Government/Municipal City Level. Q. The following statements can correctly be made about Organization and management? The following statements can correctly be made about Organization and management? A. An organization (or company) is people. Values make people persons: values give vitality, meaning and direction to a company. As the people of an organization value, so the company becomes. B. Management is the process by which administration achieves its mission, goals, and objectives C. Management effectiveness can be measured in terms of accomplishment of the purpose of the organization while management efficiency is measured in terms of the satisfaction of individual motives D. Management principles are universal therefore one need not be concerned about people, culture, values, traditions and human relations. B, A, and C only B and C only A and D only A, B and D only B, A, and C only 65 / 100 Nurse Willy reads about Path Goal theory. Which of the following behaviors is manifested by the leader who uses this theory? Challenges the staff to take individual accountability for their own practice Reminds staff about the sanctions for non performance Recognizes staff for going beyond expectations by giving them citations Admonishes staff for being laggards Path Goal theory according to House and associates rewards good performance so that others would do the same. 66 / 100 Hemoptysis is: Difficult breathing. Cough without secretions. Cough with secretions. Blood in the sputum. Blood in the sputum. 67 / 100 Medication is instilled between the skin & the muscle and used to administer Heparin. Subcutaneous Intravenous Intramuscular Intradermal Subcutaneous 68 / 100 Which of the following is the appropriate meaning of CBR? Complete Bed Rest Complete Board Room Complete Bathroom Cardiac Board Room CBR means complete bed rest. 69 / 100 A client with tuberculosis is being started on antituberculosis therapy with isoniazid. Before giving the client the first dose, the nurse should ensure that which baseline study has been completed? Serum creatinine level Electrolyte levels Liver enzyme levels Coagulation times Isoniazid therapy can cause an elevation of hepatic enzyme levels and hepatitis. Therefore, liver enzyme levels are monitored when therapy is initiated and during the first 3 months of therapy. They may be monitored longer in the client who is older than 50 years or abuses alcohol. The laboratory tests in options 1, 2, and 4 are not necessary. 70 / 100 Before administering a clients morning dose of Lanoxin (digoxin) the nurse checks the apical pulse rate and finds a rate of 54. The appropriate nursing intervention is to: Withhold the medication and notify the doctor Record the pulse rate and administer the medication Withhold the medication until the heart rate increases Administer the medication and monitor the heart rate The medication should be withheld and the doctor should be notified. Answers A B and D are incorrect because they do not provide for the clients safety. 71 / 100 In what period of nursing does people believe in TREPHINING to drive evil forces away? Contemporary period Dark period Educative period Intuitive period Egyptians believe that a sick person is someone with an evil force or demon that is inside their heads. To release these evil spirits, They would tend to drill holes on the patient’s skull and it is called TREPHINING. 72 / 100 Situation : Baby Philip, a full term male child, is delivered by his mother who is RH negative. Q. Hyperbilirubinemia is anticipated to baby Philip because of RH incompatibility. Hyperbilirubinemia occurs with incompatibility between mother and fetus because The mother has the history of previous yellow jaundice caused by a blood transfusion, which was passed the fetus through the placenta. The mother’s blood does not contain the RH factor, so she produces anti-RH antibodies that cross the placental barrier and cause hemolysis of red blood cells in infants The mother’s blood contains the RH factor and the infant’s does not, and antibodies are formed in the fetus that destroy red blood cells. The infant develops a congenital defect shortly after birth that causes the destruction of red blood cells. Right Answer is: The infant develops a congenital defect shortly after birth that causes the destruction of red blood cells. 73 / 100 Situation : Dennis 40 y/o married man, an electrical engineer was admitted with the diagnosis of paranoid disorders. He has became suspicious and distrustful 2 months before admission. Upon admission, he kept on saying, “my wife has been planning to kill me.†Q. Most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with suspicious behaviour is one of the following: Talk to the client constantly to reinforce reality Involve him in competitive activities Project cheerfulness in interacting with the patient Use of Non Judgemental and Consistent approach Use of Non Judgemental and Consistent approach 74 / 100 Which of the following is true regarding the fontanels of the newborn? The anterior is bulging; the posterior appears sunken. The anterior is triangular shaped; the posterior is diamond shaped. The anterior is large in size when compared to the posterior fontanel. The posterior closes at 18 months; the anterior closes at 8 to 12 weeks. The anterior fontanel is larger in size than the posterior fontanel. Additionally, the anterior fontanel, which is diamond shaped, closes at 18 months, whereas the posterior fontanel, which is triangular shaped, closes at 8 to 12 weeks. Neither fontanel should appear bulging, which may indicate increased intracranial pressure, or sunken, which may indicate dehydration. 75 / 100 Which of the following foods would the nurse Trish eliminate from the diet of a client in alcohol withdrawal? Soda Milk Orange Juice Regular Coffee Regular coffee contains caffeine which acts as psychomotor stimulants and leads to feelings of anxiety and agitation. Serving coffee top the client may add to tremors or wakefulness. 76 / 100 A patient with pulmonary emboli complains of pain, dyspnea, and a fear of dying. Which of the following interventions would MOST likely help to reduce the patient’s anxiety level? Administer oxygen as ordered Observe closely for signs of pain and discomfort Administer pain medication as ordered Listen to the patient’s concerns Listen to the patient’s concerns 77 / 100 SITUATION: Alfred, a 40 year old construction worker developed cough, night sweats and fever. He was brought to the nursing unit for diagnostic studies. He told the nurse he did not receive a BCG vaccine during childhood Q. Susceptibility for tuberculosis is increased markedly in those with the following condition except 23 Year old athlete taking illegal drugs and abusing substances 23 Year old athlete taking long term Decadron therapy and anabolic steroids 23 Year old athlete with diabetes insipidus Undernourished and Underweight individual who undergone gastrectomy Nutrition, Long term immunosuppression and drug abuse are all factors that affects the resistance of an individual in acquiring communicable diseases. Other factors includes extremes of ages, poor environmental sanitation, poverty and poor living conditions. Diabetes insipidus does not, in anyway alter a persons immune response. 78 / 100 The nurse is teaching a postpartum client about breast-feeding. Which instruction should the nurse include? Prenatal vitamins should be discontinued. The diet should include additional fluids. Birth control measures are unnecessary while breast-feeding. Soap should be used to cleanse the breasts. The diet for a breast-feeding client should include additional fluids. Prenatal vitamins should be taken as prescribed, and soap should not be used on the breasts because it tends to remove natural oils, which increases the chance of cracked nipples. Breast-feeding is not a method of contraception, so birth control measures should be resumed. 79 / 100 A tentative diagnosis of opiate addiction, Nurse Candy should assess a recently hospitalized client for signs of opiate withdrawal. These signs would include: Lacrimation, vomiting, drowsiness Nausea, dilated pupils, constipation Rhinorrhea, convulsions, subnormal temperature Muscle aches, papillary constriction, yawning These adaptations are associated with opiate withdrawal which occurs after cessation or reduction of prolonged moderate or heavy use of opiates. 80 / 100 During chemotherapy for lymphocytic leukemia, Mathew develops abdominal pain, fever, and “horse barn†smelling diarrhea. It would be most important for the nurse to advise the physician to order: enzyme-linked immunosuppressant assay (ELISA) test. flat plate X-ray of the abdomen. stool for Clostridium difficile test. electrolyte panel and hemogram. Immunosuppressed clients — for example, clients receiving chemotherapy, — are at risk for infection with C. difficile, which causes “horse barn†smelling diarrhea. Successful treatment begins with an accurate diagnosis, which includes a stool test. The ELISA test is diagnostic for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and isn’t indicated in this case. An electrolyte panel and hemogram may be useful in the overall evaluation of a client but aren’t diagnostic for specific causes of diarrhea. A flat plate of the abdomen may provide useful information about bowel function but isn’t indicated in the case of “horse barn†smelling diarrhea. 81 / 100 An infant who weighs 8 pounds at birth would be expected to weigh how many pounds at one year? 24 pounds 16 pounds 14 pounds 18 pounds By one year of age the infant is expected to triple his birth weight. Answers A B and C are incorrect because they are too low. 82 / 100 Normal body temperature is ranging from: 36.5 – 38.5 C 34.5 – 36.5 C 35.8 – 37.4 C 35.0 – 38.0 C 35.8 – 37.4 C 83 / 100 Which medication can control the extra pyramidal effects associated with antipsychotic agents? Doxepin (Sinequan) Perphenazine (Trilafon) Amantadine (Symmetrel) Clorazepate (Tranxene) Amantadine is an anticholinergic drug used to relive drug-induced extra pyramidal adverse effects such as muscle weakness, involuntary muscle movements, pseudoparkinsonism and tar dive dyskinesia. 84 / 100 SITUATION: John Lloyd, a 27 basketball player sustained inhalation burn that required him to have tracheostomy due to massive upper airway edema. Q. Wilma was shocked to see that the Tracheostomy was dislodged. Both the inner and outer cannulas was removed and left hanging on John Lloyd’ neck. What are the two (2) equipments at John Lloyd’s bedside that could help Wilma deal with this situation? Sterile saline dressing Theophylline and Epinephrine New set of tracheostomy tubes and Oxygen tank Obturator and Kelly clamp In an emergency like this, The first thing the nurse should do is maintaining the airway patency. With the cannunlas dislodged, The stoma will stenosed and narrows giving james an obstructed airway. The nurse would insert the kelly clamp to open the stoma and lock the clamp in place to maintain it open while she uses an obturator as to prevent further stenosis of the stoma. An obturator is a part of the NGT package included by most manufacturers to guide the physician or nurses in inserting the outer cannula. 85 / 100 Following a small-bowel resection, a client develops fever and anemia. The surface surrounding the surgical wound is warm to touch and necrotizing fasciitis is suspected. Another manifestation that would most suggest necrotizing fasciitis is: leukocytosis pressure-like pain swelling erythema Severe pressure-like pain out of proportion to visible signs distinguishes necrotizing fasciitis from cellulites. Erythema, leukocytosis, and swelling are present in both cellulitis and necrotizing fasciitis. 86 / 100 A client with terminal cancer arrives at the emergency department dead on arrival (DOA). After an autopsy is prescribed, the client’s family requests that no autopsy be performed. Which response to the family is most appropriate? “It is required by federal law. Tell me why you don’t want the autopsy done.†“An autopsy is mandatory for any client who is DOA.†“The decision is made by the medical examiner.†“I will contact the medical examiner regarding your request.†An autopsy is required by state law in certain circumstances, including the sudden death of a client and a death that occurs under suspicious circumstances. A client may have provided oral or written instructions regarding an autopsy after death. If an autopsy is not required by law, these oral or written requests will be granted. If no oral or written instructions were provided, state law determines who has the authority to consent for an autopsy. Most often, the decision rests with the surviving relative or next of kin. 87 / 100 Situation : The preoperative nurse collaborates with the client significant others, and healthcare providers. Q. Tess, the PACU nurse discovered that Malou, who weighs 110 lbs prior to surgery, is in severe pain 8 hours after cholecystectomy. Upon checking the chart, Malou found out that she has an order of Demerol 100 mg I.M. prn for pain. Tess should verify the order with: Anesthesiologist Nurse supervisor Surgeon Intern on duty Right Answer is: Surgeon 88 / 100 Chief complains includes: The answer given to question “what brought you to the hospital†Immunization and childhood illness. Hoppies and sleep pattern. Risk factor for certain diseases. The answer given to question “what brought you to the hospital†89 / 100 During a routine physical examination, a firm mass is palpated in the right breast of a 35-year-old woman. Which of the following findings or client history would suggest cancer of the breast as opposed to fibrocystic disease? History of early menarche Cyclic changes in mass size History of anovulatory cycles Increased vascularity of the breast Increase in breast size or vascularity is consistent with cancer of the breast. Early menarche as well as late menopause or a history of anovulatory cycles are associated with fibrocystic disease. Masses associated with fibrocystic disease of the breast are firm, most often located in the upper outer quadrant of the breast, and increase in size prior to menstruation. They may be bilateral in a mirror image and are typically well demarcated and freely moveable. 90 / 100 In preparing a primigravida for breastfeeding, which of the following will you do? Explain to her that putting the baby to breast will lessen blood loss after delivery Instruct her to wash her nipples before and after each breastfeeding Tell her that lactation begins within a day after delivery Teach her nipple stretching exercises if her nipples are everted Suckling of the nipple stimulates the release of oxytocin by the posterior pituitary gland, which causes uterine contraction. Lactation begins 1 to 3 days after delivery. Nipple stretching exercises are done when the nipples are flat or inverted. Frequent washing dries up the nipples, making them prone to the formation of fissures. 91 / 100 Situation : – Nurse Lorena is a Family Planning and Infertility Nurse Specialist and is currently attending to a meeting. The following conditions pertain to meeting the nursing of this particular population group. Lilia’s cousin on the other hand, knowing nurse Lorena’s specialization asks what artificial insemination by donor entails. Which would be your best answer if you were Nurse Lorena? Artificial sperm are injected vaginally to test tubal patency Donor sperm are introduced vaginally into the uterus or cervix Donor sperm are injected intra-abdominally into each ovary The husband’s sperm is administered intravenously weekly Donor sperm are introduced vaginally into the uterus or cervix 92 / 100 Tina with a histrionic personality disorder is melodramatic and responds to others and situations in an exaggerated manner. Nurse Trish would recommend which of the following activities for Tina? Scrap book making Baking class Music group Role playing The nurse would use role-playing to teach the client appropriate responses to others and in various situations. This client dramatizes events, drawn attention to self, and is unaware of and does not deal with feelings. The nurse works to help the client clarify true feelings & learn to express them appropriately. 93 / 100 Situation : Michelle, 36 weeks gestation visits the hospital because the suspects that her bag of water was ruptured. Q. Few hours after, the nurse noted that her cervix is 2 cm dilated and 50% effaced. Which of the following would the priority assessment for this client? Degree of Discomfort Temperature Urinary Output Red blood cell count Right Answer is: Temperature 94 / 100 A male client is receiving total parenteral nutrition suddenly demonstrates signs and symptoms of an air embolism. What is the priority action by the nurse? Place the client on the left side in the Trendelenburg position. Notify the physician. Place the client in high-Fowlers position. Stop the total parenteral nutrition. Lying on the left side may prevent air from flowing into the pulmonary veins. The Trendelenburg position increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases the amount of blood pulled into the vena cava during aspiration. 95 / 100 A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client’s diabetes mellitus previously had been well controlled with glyburide daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose level has been 180 to 200 mg/dL (10.2 to 11.4 mmol/L). Which medication, if added to the client’s regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia? Allopurinol Phenelzine Atenolol Prednisone Prednisone may decrease the effect of oral hypoglycemics, insulin, diuretics, and potassium supplements. Option 2, a beta blocker, and option 3, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, have their own intrinsic hypoglycemic activity. Option 4 decreases urinary excretion of sulfonylurea agents, causing increased levels of the oral agents, which can lead to hypoglycemia. 96 / 100 The client is scheduled to have surgical removal of the tumor on her left breast. Which of the following manifestation indicates that she is experiencing Mild Anxiety? She has increased awareness of her environmental details She experiences incongruence of action, thoughts and feelings She experiences random motor activities She focused on selected aspect of her illness Mild anxiety is anxiety that is manageable without any additional techniques. Mild anxiety tends to be when you have irritating symptoms that don’t seem to go away, but otherwise don’t control you. 97 / 100 The nurse cares for a 60 year-old woman has a history of hypertension, hypothyroidism and elevated cholesterol levels. She takes tablets daily for each of the health problems. The doctor orders a routine dual-energy X-ray absorptimetry test shows decreased bone density. Which medication most likely contributed to the test results? Anti-hypertensive Cholesterol absorption inhibitors Synthetic thyroid hormones Statins Synthetic thyroid hormones 98 / 100 Situation : Mrs. Ethel Agustin 50 y/o, teacher is affected with myasthenia gravis Q. Looking at Mrs. Agustin, your assessment would include the ff except: Weakness of the ocular muscle Weakness of the levator palpebrae Nystagmus Difficulty of hearing Difficulty of hearing 99 / 100 Myra is the public health nurse in a municipality with a total population of about 20,000. There are 3 rural health midwives among the RHU personnel. How many more midwife items will the RHU need? 1 The RHU does not need any more midwife item. 2 3 Each rural health midwife is given a population assignment of about 5,000. 100 / 100 The nurse is the first person to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle accident. When rendering aid to the victim the nurse should give priority to: Checking the quality of respirations Determining the level of consciousness Observing for signs of active bleeding Establishing a patent airway The nurse should give priority to maintaining the clients airway. The ABCDs of trauma care are airway with cervical spine immobilization breathing circulation and disabilities (neurological); therefore answers B C and D are incorrect. Your score is The average score is 0% LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 0% Restart quiz